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Do you decide ego eimi is the divine name by an act of your own will? Do you insist these words are the divine name only when it is convenient to your doctrine and then insist these words are not the divine name when it is not convenient for you? Why do you insist these words are the divine name in one place but not another (John 1:20; 9:9)
Jesus had just said that if he glorifies himself his glory is nothing (v.54). Did Jesus speak out of both sides of his mouth? Did he declare that he did not glorify himself (v.34) and in the very next breath glorify himself by declaring himself to be their God (v.58)? Trinitarians have Jesus speaking out of both sides of his mouth.
In these last days, GOD HAS SPOKEN TO US in a Son (Heb 1:1). He was the Father's Word who declared the Father. God the Father said that he would put HIS words in Jesus' mouth (Deut 18:15-18; Acts 3:22-25). Jesus spoke the words of God the Father (John 3:34-35; 14:10,24). So then, what did the Father say at John 8:58?
And Jesus cried out and said, 'He who believes in me, does not believe in me but in HIM WHO SENT ME. He who sees me sees HIM WHO SENT ME. I have come as Light into the world, so that everyone who believes in me will not remain in darkness. If anyone hears My sayings and does not keep them, I do not judge him; for I did not come to judge the world, but to save the world. He who rejects me and does not receive my sayings, has One who judges him; the word I spoke is what will judge him at the last day. For I HAVE NOT SPOKEN OUT OF MYSELF but THE FATHER HIMELF who sent me has given me a command as to what to say and what to speak. I know that His commandment is eternal life; therefore the things I speak, I speak just as the Father has told me.' John 12:44-50.
'I will put MY WORDS in his mouth.' Deut 18:15-18.
He whom God has sent speaks THE WORDS OF GOD. John 3:34-35.
The Trinity Delusion
Do you decide ego eimi is the divine name by an act of your own will? Do you insist these words are the divine name only when it is convenient to your doctrine and then insist these words are not the divine name when it is not convenient for you? Why do you insist these words are the divine name in one place but not another (John 1:20; 9:9)
Jesus had just said that if he glorifies himself his glory is nothing (v.54). Did Jesus speak out of both sides of his mouth? Did he declare that he did not glorify himself (v.34) and in the very next breath glorify himself by declaring himself to be their God (v.58)? Trinitarians have Jesus speaking out of both sides of his mouth.
In these last days, GOD HAS SPOKEN TO US in a Son (Heb 1:1). He was the Father's Word who declared the Father. God the Father said that he would put HIS words in Jesus' mouth (Deut 18:15-18; Acts 3:22-25). Jesus spoke the words of God the Father (John 3:34-35; 14:10,24). So then, what did the Father say at John 8:58?
And Jesus cried out and said, 'He who believes in me, does not believe in me but in HIM WHO SENT ME. He who sees me sees HIM WHO SENT ME. I have come as Light into the world, so that everyone who believes in me will not remain in darkness. If anyone hears My sayings and does not keep them, I do not judge him; for I did not come to judge the world, but to save the world. He who rejects me and does not receive my sayings, has One who judges him; the word I spoke is what will judge him at the last day. For I HAVE NOT SPOKEN OUT OF MYSELF but THE FATHER HIMELF who sent me has given me a command as to what to say and what to speak. I know that His commandment is eternal life; therefore the things I speak, I speak just as the Father has told me.' John 12:44-50.
'I will put MY WORDS in his mouth.' Deut 18:15-18.
He whom God has sent speaks THE WORDS OF GOD. John 3:34-35.
The Trinity Delusion
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Who are Trinity Delusion?What is Ego Eimi?Ego eimi, "I am", "I exist", is the first person singular present tense of the verb "to be" in ancient Greek. The use of this phrase in some of the uses found in the Gospel of John is given theological significance by many Christians. When used as a
copula, with a predicate, "I am X", then usage is equivalent to English. When used alone, without a predicate, "I am", "he is", "they are", typically mean "I exist" etc.
